The holidays, or perhaps it was a glass of mulled wine, have prompted some thoughts on Brexit and the #a50challenge. While this case rightly questions the validity of the govt's notice pursuant to A50 notice in view of the absence of a decision by Parliament, I think there
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may be a closely related but separate and wider issue. That is, irrespective of the lawfulness of the notice, as a matter purely of English constitutional law, would the govt be acting lawfully in entering into an agreement with the EU on the terms of the UK leaving, without 2/n
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